Shouldn't the acts of self harm be treated as criminal and the concerned persons be prosecuted by the state for the same? Committing homicide unsuccessfully was punishable but what if somebody chops off his own limb intentionally or unintentionally? If the same thing is done to one by some other person whether intentionally or unintentionally, then it is treated as a crime in both cases? And if consent is such a crucial matter, then can one murder another with latter's consent? If some person is duped to lose something, then there is certainly for that time the consent existed. Often we hear that people do wrong things to others with latter's consent, but they are not exempted for such crimes. What is the difference between the acts when somebody donates an amount to a needy and when the needy robs the same amount from that person? Apart from the absence of consent, there is no difference in these events at all. Can we treat the willingness a valid factor for that purpose? And what if somebody else donates one's money to other needy persons? Is it not a more heinous crime? If jurisprudence has clear answers to such questions, many ideological shibboleths can be junked.
Niraj Kuma Jha